My son had a stroke 2 days after he was born which was diagnosed after he started having seizures. Wanted to get a second opinion here-Would like to know if anyone can give more detailed explanation of the MRI report. Does diffusion hyperintensity across the areas mentioned mean those all areas are affected? What does "The visualized orbital contents are grossly unremarkable" mean? Here is the MRI report

Technique: Sagittal T1, axial FLAIR, axial diffusion, coronal T2 FSE, coronal FLAIR, axial MPGR, coronal SPGR, precontrast axial T1 images acquired.

Findings: There is diffusion hyperintensity along the left frontoparietal and temporal-occipital regions with additional hyperintense diffusion signal along the posterior left thalamus. There is no evidence of acute intracranial hemorrhage,midline shift or hydrocephalus. The visualized orbital contents are grossly unremarkable.

Impression: Left hemispheric signal abnormality which suggesting recent infarction. Peri-ictal signal changes is considered less likely. No evidence of acute intracranial hemorrhage,midline shift or hydrocephalus.