Hi,

I have not been properly diagnosed yet, but doctors thought back in 2006 that "A differential diagnosis of segmental spinal muscular atrophy, which could be considered, is not likely due to the subacute onset of symptoms."

8 years later, I have severe muscle wasting on both forearms and hands, with impaired hand functions.

Were the doctors correct? I hope for a diagnosis some time soon, but at the moment, I'm looking for answers on my own.