Okay as usual there are many things I take for granted as just being 'normal'. Hands, fingers, feet and toes turning white with exposure to cold, 'normal', feeling numb, tingly and pins and needles, 'normal'. Turning bluish with continued contact with cold, 'normal'. Turning bright red upon warming... Also 'normal'.

So why is this a 'disease'? At first I thought when looking it over from people discussing it, that it meant white or blue tinged tingly fingers and toes when they 'feel' cold. As in its 80 degs outside and your fingers suddenly 'feel cold' turn white and go numb. But upon further review, it's the, turning white with exposure to cold, and feeling numb. And for a few in warm weather from intense stess.

Is that not physiology 101? The body will do all it can to protect the core and the brain. So when exposed to cold, does it not make sense it shuts down the veins and capillaries to conserve energy and keep the blood heated at the core of the body? And when warmed up, those capillaries should also do open fully, double time, when the perceived threat to the brain has passed to get the limbs circulating once more and protect them from damage?

To me, it seems normal, but then my body has always acted that way. From my very first snow, to the last time I pulled something out of the freezer (fifteen minutes ago when I found out that my mother's hands don't react 'quite the same' ) her fingers do turn a little bit pale and less pink in color exposed to an ice pack, but at twice the time it takes for my fingers to already be white and turning bluish. And they do redden slightly as they warm up, unlike the brilliant scarlet my fingers change to. But I'm also a bit more fair skinned than my mother so that needs to be taken into account. As well as half her age so again better blood flow and quicker reaction times, and she smokes about 2 packs a day, I quit a half a pack habit over a year ago.

So I still hold to it being a 'normal' reaction. So why is the medical community making such a fuss over it? And how does it give any significant direction in diagnosis towards any condition over another? Aside from maybe the condition of being raised in a northern environment where the body learned quickly to shut down the limbs and focus on the trunk and brain, over a southern climate where well maybe the body hadn't learned that lesson yet? Making it a non-intrinsic uncontrolled body function. Like the Sherpas who can handle high altitudes without respiratory support or consequence, and don't have an issue going to sea level and back up again later in life. Their bodies just 'know' how to survive on less oxygen.

Don't get me wrong, the needling pins and numbness in cold fingers hurts like nobodies business!!! It's annoying to need to run warm water in the kitchen sink just to pull a pizza out of the freezer for dinner. And I like ice cream cones far more than a bowl of ice cream because I don't need to keep switching hands to warm the other while I enjoy it. (They really should make insulated ice cream bowls...) Either way, I'm not trying to deminish the pain or inconvenience of frozen fingers or the dread of stepping on a cold floor with cold feet. It hurts! But does that mean it's 'abnormal' is the question? Hitting your thumb with a hammer hurts about equally (maybe a little less depending on how cold we're talking) but I'd hardly cause it a disease or phenomenon. So why do they classify Raynaud's that way?