This is something I've never understood. Initially I was told by my GP that my parasthesia/ burning/ wet legs sensation were most probably due to secondary Raynauds. A Professor of connective tissue diseases agreed with my GP's suggestion and I was started on a calcium channel blocker, Nifedipine, with vasodilation in mind. It worked to an extent apart from the flushing and swollen ankles and the occasional dizzy spell when my BP dropped. However I started to realise that it was causing a severe follicular rash on my legs and as it was summer I stopped.

The symptoms of whitened toes and icy cold, wet legs and burning in hands and feet returned in winter and I have just assumed this was due untreated Raynaud's. However I don't get the white fingers or classic Raynaud's skin discolouration and no amount of socks makes any difference because the cold seems to be from within rather than affected by an external source.

I have now started taking Amlodopine for my hypertension and tonight, five days after starting it, my face is having a grand flush and yet my feet are like icebergs. It is very cold outside here I acknowledge but I'm freezing and burning despite rugs and a fire and feeling totally confused by my mad circulation. Im wondering how I can know whether my circulation issues are part of my small fiber neuropathy or are vasospastic in origin? I feel that Raynaud's is probably a red herring for me.

Oh and how exactly do these two closely related conditions differ from one another can anyone explain? - preferably in layman's terms!