Hi everyone,

I know I run the risk of being thought as being like a broken record but if I thought that some of my questions had been answered by what I read, I would not continue to ask
I respectfully put these questions to anyone who can give me an answer.

* If RSD/CRPS is NOT neurologically based (as opposed to a specific nerve injury) then why is there world wide, well documented evidence that early intervention with Nerve Blocks and Mirror and Graded Motor Imagery when there is often no other symptom other than pain , is there is a high chance of remission or full recovery?

* Isn't it true that an injury or malfunction of our Autonomic nerve supply will lead to one of the possible symptoms of RSD/CRPS--ie-cyanosis due to vasoconstriction, as it is the autonomic nerve supply which controls the dilation and constriction of our vessels and therefore account for any resultant atrophic changes.

*If RSD/CRPS can be caused by something as simple as a paper cut where there has been no disruption to the perfusion of the skin, how can this be an IRI?

*If the diagnosis of IRI is when there has been damage to the tissue after the blood is returned to it after a time of ischaemia and RSD/CRPS is an IRI, then why do so many people have RSD/CRPS without ever having a period of ischaemia in that limb.
This would be particularly relevent in the spread of the disease which usually occurs with NO particular inciting event to the area of spread.



I thank anyone who will consider these questions and without reposting the myriad of articles and abstracts that have been recently been posted with regard to the possible causes of RSD/CRPS, I would just like to recommend any article written by the well known leader in treatment of RSD/CRPS- Dr. Wilfred Janig. What he says makes sense to me but of course---that is just me.


Cheers to all
Tayla