Since Alan's mom had Guillian Barre when she was 45 (died at 53 of heart complications due to obesity and other stuff), and Alan has been diagnosed with CIDP, (he got the neuropathy in his early 40's), does this necessarily mean that our son will get some form of this.

Our son has Aspergers and is on mood stabilizers, and recently found to have an overactive thyroid. He's now on armour, and is stable. He's not psychotic or anything of that nature, but obviously has mental problems.

I'm just curious if he has to face hereditary problems also. Is this an absolute given?. I know that there are dominant genes and recessive genes. But this CIDP being a variant of GBS, well, it's something to think about. One good thing, no one on my side of the family had any kind of MS, neuropathy, nerve problems etc, (my dad was 80 when he became diabetic, as was his mother, at the same age), but nothing resembling neuropathy on my side of the family. Most of the people on my side of the family had cancer (aren't I lucky???) I have no idea which side gives the dominant or recessive gene information.

My son has all the information on his father's condition and he's a computer genius so if he wanted to know this info for himself, he can just google it. Which I'm sure he hasn't done.

I just wanted some answers (if you guys know, that is) .

Thanks, mel