it is possible to have a drug-induced manic reaction, and not be bipolar.

clearly bipolars are much much more at risk for manic switch from antidepressants.

but a drug-induced manic reaction, albeit grounds for caution with anti-depressants, further investigation into the patient's history and certainly a longitudinal observation, is by itself insufficient for a bipolar diagnosis.

i suspect not all pdocs agree on this.

but in effect, even the DSM states that a bipolar diagnosis requires an episode of mania, hypomania or mixed mania that is not drug-induced.

~ waves ~