I recently had an MRI done on my left shoulder for pain: Can anyone explain to me exactly what the doctors mean by these results?

FINDINGS: There is diffuse thickening of the distal supraspinatus tendon with increased intratendinous T2 signal. A partial undersurface tear is noted at the greater tuberosity insertion (rim-rent tear). No full thickness rotator cuff is seen. Teh acromion is slightly downsloping and there is mild thickening of the coracoacromial ligament. The bony acromiohumeral distance is preserved. There is suggestion of a non-displaced anterior labral tear. However, absence if adequate fluid in the glenohumeral joint limits optimal assessment for labral pathology. A subcentimeter T1 low, T2 hyperintense lesion in the left femoral head may represent a enchondroma. Muscles and subcutaneous tissues show normal signal. There is no fracture or contusion. Subacromial-subdeltoid edema.

*****IMPRESSION*****

Distal supraspinal tendinosis. Partial undersurface tear of the distal superaspinatus tendon at the greater tuberosity insertion (rim-rent tear).

Slightly lateral downsloping acromion. Mild edema in the subacromial-subdeltoid bursa.

Possible non-displaced anterior abral tear.

Please help me understand what they are saying?