I am somewhat confused here. Okay, let me explain. I have always tested Alan's sugar readings all these years (because I'm a diabetic).

Alan has never and I mean never gone over the number 85.

When he got his neuropathy, approx 18 years ago, it was very slight, (in fact he thought he had athlete's foot and said as much to the doctor at Coney Island Hospital) the doctor did an emg and said: "No, you have peripheral neuropathy" That's when they began doing the diabetes testing, the glucose tolerance tests (he once had the 3 hour tests way back when he first got the PN). They said "no, no diabetic condition"

Now am I to understand that he might in fact have a pre-diabetic condition from 18 years ago that gives him neuropathy but that it got better because he diets, exercises and does yoga.

He sat on the bus all the way home from the foot doctor's office and said "boy,today my PN is killing me, the cymbalta is doing nothing".

But when he walks around, and exercises , the PN does not bother him.

So I wish someone would explain how a PN can be a result of a pre-diabetic condition but get better with exercise.

Then, is this auto-immune, or is this from the spinal stenosis. I mean, when he comes home from a visit with Dr. Theirl, this guy can do the macarena, if you know what I mean. Wouldn't tht indicate that it has something to do with his back?


Oh, and do you think he should go for a spinal tap after all. I'm so confused on this subject.

Thanks much.
Mel