I've already been diagnosed with RSD type I in my left arm, but I underwent nerve conduction studies and EMG today for both my doctor and short term disability. My EMG was normal, as I expected. My nerve conduction studies showed mild abnormalities with latency in nerve transmission. They also measured the temperature difference between the two arms. There was a 5 degree celsius temperature variation between my good and bad arm with my RSD arm being colder. My temperature does seem to vary though according to my pain level and time of day. When they measured the temperature, my RSD arm felt more normal temperature wise than usual. Usually it feels much colder, so my guess is usually the temperature difference is greater.

I asked the doctor who performed the tests if he agreed with my neurologist's diagnosis with RSD, type I and he said given my previous history of RSD in my left foot and my pain, hypersensitivity, temperature changes, and an observed tremor, that he does agree. However, like many doctors, it was hard to read him.

He called my 5 degree celsius temperature difference "borderline," but I read that all you need for RSD is a 1.1 degree celsius temperature difference. Which is correct?


ETA: The doctor attribute the latency in nerve transmission to the colder temperature in my RSD arm and overall temperature difference.