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Old 09-03-2014, 09:07 AM #1
juliejayne juliejayne is offline
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juliejayne juliejayne is offline
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Default CMS versus MG

Sorry for the stupid question, but can anyone here give a clear explanation of the possible differences that a sufferer would notice between CMS and MG?

The reason for the question, except that it would be helpful for others, is that I have recently come across a couple of threads regarding CMS whilst following up on my DV problems.

In both of these threads fluoxetine was mentioned, and it seemed to be suggested that fluoxetine as a treatment might be used in CMS.

I recall that when I had fluoxetine for depression I reacted very badly to it and had to be switched to paroxetine. I am just wondering if there might be any connection?
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Old 09-06-2014, 02:48 PM #2
AnnieB3 AnnieB3 is offline
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Well, you can't diagnose a condition by looking at an adverse reaction to a drug, but it does have some anecdotal weight.

Some of the sodium channel congenital myasthenic syndromes respond to Fluoxetine. So if you have MG or a CMS where not enough acetylcholine reaches the muscles, then you might not do well on that drug.

Did you know that Paxil is extraordinarily difficult to withdraw from and class actions lawsuits are in place in the US due to that fact? It can cause quite horrific CNS symptoms when trying to withdraw from it!

I wish you had a better route to care other than this.


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Old 09-07-2014, 08:49 AM #3
juliejayne juliejayne is offline
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juliejayne juliejayne is offline
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Oh I understand that Annie. But I was just wondering if my previous atypical results to certain drugs, might (very unlikely) perhaps have been to my already having an underlying MG type condition.

BTW, I had no serious problem coming off Paxil, it just took a long time. But if I had stayed on the fluoxetine, then I would have certainly ended in prison, or worse. Strange how we all tend to respond differently to different drugs, but doctors so rarely take that into account.
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