So last week I posted a thread (I can't post links yet, but it's thread163643.html) about a friend of mine who is dealing with a mysterious loss of feeling/motor function in her left hand. You guys recommended a bunch of useful stuff, particularly the idea of some kind of nerve compression in the cervical spine, which made a lot of sense to me and I told her to follow up on it.
This is the conversation she had with me tonight on AIM after seeing the neuro again for further EMGs.
Quote:
Her: I do have mild neuropathy in my feet--nothing unusual for a baseline diabetic
Her: my sugar is under control so it shouldn't get worse
Her: totally unrelated to my left hand
Her: which is nothing cervical
Her: I have to go back in 6 mos to have the left hand tested again to see if it continues to worsen or call if it gets worse before then
Her: and ..that's it for now
Me: why did she say it wasn't cervical?
Her: because there is no blockage
Her: the entire nerve tests the same
Her: if there was something cervical one area would test much lower than the other
Her: it tests the same all the way up the arm
Me: hmm
Me: i guess that seems like it would be *more* of an indication that it was something in the spine, not less.
Her: no, nothing to do with the spine
Her: she'd actually ruled that out to her satisfaction but hadn't mentioned it
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Am I crazy here thinking that this analysis doesn't make sense? Is what the neuro is saying correct? Does anyone have any suggestions on what I should tell her, or should we indeed just sit back and wait for the check in six months? I'm really confused here and I'm not sure I trust her doctor (but then, what do I know about it?)
Anyway, I'd be grateful for anything anybody can tell me or suggest.
01-27-2012, 11:14 PM
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