Totally confused
 

Sorry for the length of the post, being new here I am just trying to understand and there are many old threads I have seen that are quite educational. Here I go:

I am quite old (73) but in good health, living in Oz. For the past ten years I have been suffering pain in my right groin, Voltaren use normally alleviates it. I thought 'tendonitis.' Over the last 6 months the pain has extended down my right leg, ankle, buttock - like a dull 'toothache'. Sometimes behind my testicles. (My PSA is very good and all blood-tests very normal.)
My doctor retired and the 'new' ones, 'passed-the-buck.' Dr 1 sent me for an X-ray with the result:
'There is severe osteoarthritic change involving the right hip joint with major narrowing of the joint cavity, sclerosis and marginal osteophyte formation."
Dr 1 informed me this was the cause of the leg-pain but then he moved-on.

Dr 2 said I need a CT scan but put 'spinal' on the referral that I changed to 'lumbar!'
The result was:
Loss of normal lumbar lordosis. 5 lumbar type vertebrae is noted. Endplate
changes of the inferior endplate of L3 may represent a Schmorl's node.
L1/L2: Normal.
L2/L3:Mild broad-based disc protrusion. Minor facet joint changes without significant spinal canal or neural exit foraminal stenosis.
L3/L4. Mild disc protrusion. Mild facet joint arthropathy ligamentum flavum hypertrophy causing a mild spinal canal- narrowing at this 1evel.
L4/L5. Broad-based disc bulge. Bilateral facet joint arthropathy ligamentum flavum hypertrophy causing a mild spinaI canal narrowing. Mild narrowing of the left neural exit foramen. There is some impingement of the traversing L5 nerve roots in the lateral recess.
L5/3L mi1d disc bulge without significant spinal canal and neural exit foraminal stenosis.
Incidental calcified aorta. (Dr 2 said 'it's your age….???)
CONCLUSION: Degenerative changes of the lumbar spine, particularly
at L3/L4 and L4/L5 with mild spinal canal narrowing and likely impingement of traversing nerve roots at L5 nerve roots in the lateral recess.

I have no idea what this means but Dr 2 said I need a right-hip prosthesis and sent me to a Physio who confirmed his diagnosis. Dr 2 also referred me to an orthopaedic Surgeon who wiggled my right leg about (no pain) and said my right hip was @ 90% and a prosthesis would reduce it to @ 40% -- come back in a year?

There are many threads herein that are similar to this CT result but they are quite old.

Can anyone please advise what all this 'spinal' terminology means? I do not think it's my hip-joint. Thanks.