Hello and happy new year to everyone!

I posted the bellow thread on the Peripheral Neuropathy forum, since I have small fiber neuropathy and that's where I post, but I've yet to hear from someone who can answer my question. I thought I'd post it here, and see if anyone can kindly help me out.

Thank you in advance.

The link: http://neurotalk.psychcentral.com/thread230404.html

The post itself: So I followed some the of the helpful links provided my Mrs.D going back a few years, and came across this: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/1...DBE7BEE.f02t04. The idea is basically that DRG damage or ganglionopathy shows up on a cervical MRI. More specifically that what shows up is T2 weighted hyperintense posterior lesions as well as smaller cord areas (it seems specifically at C3). So there is damage in signals being sent back to the CNS too, it seems and that’s how it’s showing up. Does this sound right? Anyone know more about this?

Here’s my main question. I’m no expert here, and I haven’t had an MRI of my DRG, but I’ve had a cervical MRI with the following bit in it: “There is loss of T2 hyperintense disc signal at the C2-3 through C6-7 levels reflecting multilevel disc degeneration.” I’m wondering whether this is completely different, and that my loss of T2 hyperintense disc signal has nothing to do with T2 hyperintense lesions, but I really have no idea. I’d be grateful if someone knew more about this and could make sense of it for me.

Also, my cervical MRI was done without contrast, and if I’m not mistaken, to really (or at all?) see lesions, you need the contrast. My brain MRI was done with contrast and came back clean, but I had a terrible allergic reaction to it, ended up in emergency, and even had completely numb arms for a day or two, so they decided not to do the cervical with contrast a few days later.