Here is what the report said:

(thank god I'm a fast typist) lol

Reason for Referral: 61 year old man with a diagnosis of polyneuropathy. A prior electrodiagnostic study (12/06) found absence of bilateral sural and right median sensory responses with reduced right unar SNAP amplitude and mild-moderately reduced bilateral peroneal motor CAP amplitudes, severely reduced left tibial CMAP amplitude, and an absent right tibial response. There was no active dennervation on needle examination of the lower extremities. There was evidence of a moderate right median neuropathy at the wrist. The patient has been receiving treatment with IVIG and notes improvement. This electrodiagnostic study is performed to assess for interval change.

IMPRESSION:
There is electrodiagnostic evidence of a symmetric polyneuropathy affecting the legs and right arm. The sensory component is severely affected. There is moderate motor involvement in the legs. There is electrodiagnostic evidence of a bilaterial L5/S1 radiculopathy. There is electrodiagnostic evidence of a moderate right median neuropathy at the wrist. in comparison to the prior study, there is currently evidence of a bilateral lumbosacral radiculopathy. The peroneal motor CMAP amplitudes have improved.

?????????????????????????????????????what does all this mean?

Also (and here is where it gets VERY INTERESTING) They are sending him for yet another MRI. OF HIS BACK!!!

Alan has always had the opinion that his neuropathy in his toes is a result from something wrong with his back (and Dr. Theirl said he agreed and it was his glutes). That's why Alan used to go to the gym and felt much better after all the stretching etc. etc. (and when Dr. Theirl uses the G5 machine on his back, well Alan is a new person) but the foot ulcer prevented him from going to the gym.

So I asked him "but you had an MRI two years ago, and every time you mention your back, they pooh poohed you".

He responded: "that's exactly what I told the neurologist today, I told her "your back guy told me it was not my back". She then said: "Well, that was two years ago, let's get another MRI, and we'll take a closer look.

Any and all comments are welcome (I've got a roasting chicken in my oven that needs my attention...lol)

Thanks much

Melody

For another ailment I had a cat scan and after that they told me I need an ulrtasound and after that they told me I need an MRI all within a couple of weeks. Then they told me I need an invasive scan. I did not go for that.

My neurolgist asked me if I knew why all the scans were recommended. I said Money, and he agreed.

Hi Melody, didn't Alan's PN feel better after he seen a neuro/chiropractor a long while ago, or am i thinking of someone else ?

Brian

Hi Brian:

You are absolutely correct. When Alan (before he began seing Dr. Theirl), he was on Fentanyl, vicodin, he was all out of shape and AFTER SEEING DR. THEIRL and getting adjustments, and G5 machine, well he was a different person. He was able to s l o w l y get off the Fentanyl. You can't just take a patch off and go about your business. His primary care doctor said "no problem, we'll wean you off".

So that's why Alan (and his chiro-neurologist) always thought that his PN (only between certain toes) was caused by SOMETHING RELATED TO HIS BACK.

but everybody said "no".

So we shall see.

Drives one nuts doesn't it??

Melody

Hi Mel--That sounds like Alan has problems from his back, plus maybe some small fiber neuropathy from something else--diabetes? I think it's great the docs are looking at his back again.

Hi, how are you doing?????

No, Alan never had anything with diabetes. His blood sugar is always around 77 and he just got his blood tests results the other day.

BUT SOMETHING DID HAPPEN ABOUT ONE HOUR AGO.
Alan was at the computer (he is on constantly and he knows to look away from it from time to time). Anyway, I heard him go "oh, oh". and he comes into where I was watching tv and he goes "I just had a little Menieres attack".

I said "oh oh, come and lay down for a bit". He said it lasted one second. (He came home with new glasses today by the way).

I asked him to describe what happened and he said "It was not like the vertigo I had 2 years ago when the floor came up and the room spun around me". I said "so what happened?" and he said "It was like I was going to pass out, but I was fine in a second". (To me, this did not seem at all similar to when he had the Vertigo attack all those years ago). I asked him "exactly what were you doing when this feeling came on you?" and he said "I was looking down at the keyboard and it came over me"

Ever since he has had that vertigo attack (about 2 years ago), there is no salt in my house, but he does make popcorn every night and sprays some Ken's light honey mustard spray on it). But he has not had any dizzy stuff in two years.

Now let me tell you what happened earlier (because I have no idea if this could contribute to a person getting dizzy).

1. We know he got new glasses today.
2. He had gone to his primary care physician's office to pick up a prescription. They did not have it. They told him to come and pick it up, it was not there. He felt the girl was disrespectful to him and he lost it. He really lost it.
He comes home from the doctor's office all upset and I couldn't understand. I knew this had nothing to do with any prescription, so I said "what really happened?" and he said "the girl just yessed me to death, just like my son did".

I knew immediately that he was having some kind of THING over our son. It all must have hit him today. Last month our son wrote him a nasty email and was quite hostile. Alan was devastated. I have tried to help him get through this and I had no idea it was eating him up inside.

So I got him to talk about his feelings. He was devastated over what our son has done and what he has become. My husband feels so troubled over this, he poured his heart out. I listened, then made him lie down and gave him a body massage and he went out like a light. When he woke up, we talked and I called his physician's office and explained what happened. they were most understanding. He has an appointment to see the doctor on Monday and we'll go over his emotional upset (don't have a better word for it). This hasn't happened since he was put on Zoloft.

So he felt better after getting his feelings out, and we had dinner. Then he goes on the computer, THEN HE GETS A ONE SECOND DIZZY SPELL.

So here's what I'm trying to ascertain. If the dizzy spell was from stress, or from his getting new glasses.

He feels that it's from the glasses, that this happened YEARS AGO and he said the feeling was exactly the same. (by the way, I immediately took away his glasses and put the old one's on. Same prescription. He had dropped a pair, and they were replaced. Today the replacement pair arrived and he feels it was the glasses.

So I'm trying to find out why a person can get dizzy for one second. I took his blood pressure. It was 107/73. So he's fine in that department.

He was in such a state earlier today over our son that he just fell right into a deep sleep after I massaged him.

I don't know what to think. Do any of you think it might be the new pair of glasses? Or can his episode of emotional stress, well could that have triggered a short dizzy spell later on in the day?

By way he has been fine ever since the one second spell and he said if I don't leave him alone, he'll go crazy. lol

I'm trying to get him off of the computer but he won't listen. Thankfully he's in he other room watching tv. He sits way across he room from the tv so at least that's good.

If anyone has any advice, it would be most welcome.

Lots of stress going on here.

Melody